Simple Risk Model (Part 3 of 5): Simulate Loss Magnitude

December 22, 2010

Part 1 – Simulate Loss Frequency Method 1
Part 2 – Simulate Loss Frequency Method 2

In parts one and two of this series we looked at two methods for simulating loss frequency. Method one – while useful – has shortcomings as it primarily requires working with expected loss frequency values less then 1 (once per year). In addition, with method one, it was not possible to determine iterations where loss frequency could be greater then once per year.

Method two overcame these limitations. We leveraged the Poisson probability distribution (discrete distribution) as well as an expected loss frequency value and a random value between 0 and 1 to return a loss value (an integer) for any given iteration. Using this method – about 10% of our iterations resulted in loss events and some of those iterations had multiple loss events. From my perspective method two is the more useful of the two – especially since it has the potential to account for low probability situations where there could be numerous loss events for any simulation iteration.

The purpose of this post is to simulate loss magnitude. Conceptually, we are going to do what we did with loss frequency method two – but our distribution and input parameters will differ. To simulate loss magnitude we need four things:

1.    A continuous probability distribution.
2.    A random value between 0 and 1
3.    An expected or average loss magnitude
4.    A loss magnitude standard deviation

Continuous Probability Distribution. Technically, if you have internal or external loss magnitude data, you would analyze that data and fit the data to an appropriate continuous probability distribution. There are dozens of such distributions. There are often times where we have limited data or we need to make good faith (or “educated”) assumptions about the shape of our loss magnitude curve. A lot of IT risk scenarios loss magnitude curves are often assumed to be normal or lognormal in nature. Normal is often assumed but it has its limitations since there can be negative values and rarely is there a “perfect” normal loss magnitude curve for IT risk scenarios. However, most of the “normal-like” distributions converge to normal (as data points increase). Thus, for the purposes of demonstration I am going to use the normal distribution.

Random Value Between 0 and 1. Because we are dealing with uncertainty and a distribution, we will use random values between 0 and 1 in our probability distribution; think Excel function RAND().

Expected or Average Loss Magnitude. Statistics 101 – If you take the sum of X values and divide by X you get the average. Quantitative risk analysis methodologies like FAIR can facilitate deriving an average loss magnitude estimate. Or maybe, you have actual loss magnitude data points. How you derive average loss magnitude is not the focus of this post – just remember that to use the normal distribution you need that average loss magnitude value.

Loss Magnitude Standard Deviation. More Statistics 101. At a high level, standard deviation is a statistic or measure of how spread out our data points are relative to the mean. The larger the number, the greater or flatter our distribution (think bell curve) will be; the smaller the number – the more narrow the bell curve will be. In the interest of brevity, it is assumed that either you can use existing Excel functions to calculate a standard deviation from your loss magnitude data points, or your risk analysis tool sets will provide this value to you. In some cases you may not have actual data sets to calculate a standard deviation let alone an average magnitude value – in those cases we have to make our best estimates and document assumptions accordingly.

How do these work together? In layman’s terms – given a normal loss distribution with an average loss magnitude of $5000 and a standard deviation of $1000; what is the loss value (inverse cumulative value) at any point in the distribution, given a random probability value?

You may want to download this Excel spreadsheet to reference for the rest of the post (it should work in Excel 2003, Excel 2007 and Excel 2010; I have not tested it on Office for Mac). Reference tab “magnitude” and make sure you view it in Excel and NOT in Google Apps.


a.    The average loss magnitude amount is $5000 (cell B1; tab “magnitude”)

b.    The loss magnitude standard deviation is $1000 (cell B2; tab “magnitude”)

c.    For purposes of demonstration, we will number some cells to reflect the number of iterations (A9:A1008; A9=1; A10=A9+1; drag A10 down to you get to 1000).

d.    In Excel, we would use the =RAND() function to generate the random values in cells B9:B1008.

e.    Now, in column C beginning in cell C9 – we are going to combine a Normal probability distribution with our average loss ($B$1), standard deviation ($B$2) and the random value(s) in column B to return a loss value. In other words, given a normal distribution with mean $5000 and standard deviation of $1000 – what is the value of that distribution given a random value between 0 and 1 – rounded to the nearest 10th? You would type the following in C9 and then drag C9 down to C1008:
=ROUND(MAX(NORMINV(B9,$B$1,$B$2),0),-1)

Let’s dissect this formula.

i.    ROUND. I am going to round the output of this formula to the nearest 10; annotated by the -1.
ii.    MAX. Because we are using the normal distribution and because some values could be less then zero which is not applicable for most IT scenarios, we are going to compare the value generated by the NORMINV function to 0. Which ever is larger is the value that then gets rounded to nearest 10.
iii.    NORMINV. This is the function built into Excel that returns an inverse cumulative value of a normal distribution given a probability, a mean and a standard deviation.

f.    Once you have values in all the cells – hit F9 a few times.

g.    Cell B3 gives the minimum loss value from cells C9 through C1008. The random value associated with the minimum value is probably less then 0.00xxxx.

h.    Cell B4 gives the maximum loss value from cells C9 through C1008. The random value associated with the maximum value is probably greater then 0.99xxxx.

i.    The histogram shows the count of iterations whose loss magnitude values falls within a loss magnitude bin. If you drew a line around the tops of each column it would resemble a bell curve. We expect to get this since we are using the normal distribution.

j.    Press the F9 key; new random values will be generated. Every time you press F9 think of it as a new simulation with 1000 iterations. Press F9 lots of times and you will notice that the histogram changes as well. While individual bin counts will change – the general shape of the histogram does not.

k.    By the way, if you change the average loss magnitude value in cell B1 – the histogram will probably break. But you can change the value in B2 to 500, hit F9 a few times and observer how the bell-curve shape becomes more narrow. Or, change B2 to 2000 and you will see a much flatter bell curve.

KEY TAKE-AWAY(S)

1.    As we did with simulating loss frequency, we leverage randomness to simulate loss magnitude.

2.    While we typically talk about an average loss magnitude value; losses can range in terms of magnitude. Being able to work within a range of loss values gives us a more complete view of our loss potential.

In part four of the series, we will combine loss frequency and loss magnitude into one simulation. For every iteration, we will randomly derive a loss frequency value (an integer) and a loss magnitude value. We will then calculate an expected loss, which is the product of the loss frequency and the loss magnitude values. Perform this cycle thousands or millions of time and you now have an expected loss distribution.


Simple Risk Model (Part 2 of 5): Simulate Loss Frequency #2

November 1, 2010

Part 1

In part one of this series we looked at how we can simulate loss frequency for values less then 1 (less then one occurrence per year). We generated a random value, compared it to 0.1000, and counted the number of times our random number was less then 0.1000. In some simulations the percentage of loss was less then or greater then 0.1000. As you will recall there are a couple of note-worthy shortcomings with the method outlined in part 1:

1.    If the expected loss frequency is greater then 1 then using RAND() is not viable, because RAND() only generates values between 0 and 1.

2.    In iterations where you had a loss event; method one does not reflect the actual number of loss events for that iteration. In reality, there could be some iterations (or years) where you have more then one loss event.

The focus of this post is too cover a method that is probably more appropriate for modeling information technology risk as it pertains to loss frequency and overcomes the limitations listed above.

For this method we need three things:

1.    A probability distribution; preferably a discreet probability distribution; we’ll go with Poisson. Why poisson? (UMASS, VOSE)

a.    In the binomial process, there are n discrete opportunities for an event (a ‘success’) to occur. In the Poisson process, there is a continuous and constant opportunity for an event to occur.
b.    The event is something that can be counted in whole numbers; (no such thing as a partial loss event)
c.    Loss events are independent, so that one occurrence neither diminishes nor increases the chance of another; (assumption in a lot of IT risk scenarios).
d.    The average frequency of occurrence for the time period in question is known (in our case, could be based off evidence or subject matter estimates)

2.    An expected loss frequency; like the first method, the expected loss frequency is 0.1000; or once every ten years we expect a loss event.
3.    A random value. We will use Excel’s random number generator to generate a random value between 0 and 1.

How do these work together? In layman’s terms – given an expected loss frequency (0.1000) that is Poisson in nature – what is the integer or number of loss events (inverse cumulative value), given a probability (random value)?

You may want to download this Excel spreadsheet to reference for the rest of the post (it should work in Excel 2003, Excel 2007 and Excel 2010; I have not tested it on Office for Mac). Reference tab “loss 2”

Make sure you view it in Excel and NOT Google Apps.

a.    The stated expected loss frequency is 0.1000 (cell B1; tab “loss 2”)

b.    For purposes of demonstration, we will number some cells to reflect the number of iterations (A9:A1008; A9=1; A10=A9+1; drag A10 down to you get to 1000).

c.    In Excel, we would use the =RAND() function to generate the random values in cells B9:B1008.

d.    Now, in column C beginning in cell C9 – we are going to combine a Poisson probability distribution with our expected loss frequency and the random value(s) in column B to return an integer that is the number of loss events for that iteration. You would type the following in C9 and then drag C9 down to C1008:
=poisinv1(B9,$B$1)

i.    Poisinv1 is a function to return the inverse cumulative value for a poisson random value. I used the SimTools VBA code to generate this value. In addition, this approach negates the need for you to have to install the SimTools Excel add-on.
ii.    B9 is the random value we generated in step c.
iii.    $B$1 is the expected loss frequency declared in step a.

e.    Once you have values in all the cells, you can now look at how many iterations resulted in a loss and how many did not. Cell B2 counts the number of iterations you had a loss and cell B3 counts the number of iterations you did not have a simulated loss; their corresponding percentages are next to each other.

f.    Cell B4 sums up the number of actual loss events for all 1000 iterations. You will notice that more then likely, the value in B4 is greater then the value in B2. This is the result of using the poisson probability distribution – there were some iterations where there was more then one loss event.

g.    Take a look at cell B5 – the number in this cell is the maximum number of loss events for across our iterations. Given our input parameters – it will most likely be 2, maybe 3.

h.    The pie chart shows the percentage and count for iterations that resulted in loss versus those that did not.

i.    Press the F9 key; new random values will be generated. Every time you press F9 think of it as a new simulation with 1000 iterations. Press F9 lots of times and you will notice that in some simulations loss events occur greater then 10% of the time and in some simulations less then 10% of the time.

j.    Like the first loss frequency simulation method, what you are observing is the effect of randomness. Over a large number of iterations and/or simulations we would expect the loss frequency to converge to 10%.

KEY TAKE-AWAYS

1.    This method overcomes the shortcomings of the first method in that we can simulate the number loss events regardless of the expected loss frequency value and this method results in a few iterations where there was more then one loss event.

2.    Given the stated input parameters and for those iterations where there was more then one loss event – look at the random value to the left of that cell (column B). More then likely the random value is 0.99xxxx. The higher the random value – the larger the returned integer will be. We often hear of “tail risk”. This method can help us better understand the “tail” of a risk distribution if we were to simulate a loss magnitude for every instance of a loss event.

In part three of this series we will look at simulating loss magnitude using randomness combined with an average loss amount and a standard deviation.

In part four we will combine simulated loss frequency and simulated loss magnitude into a single function.

Part five will be a wrap up.


Simple Risk Model (Part 1 of 5): Simulate Loss Frequency #1

October 25, 2010

Let’s start this series by defining risk. I am going to use the FAIR definition of risk which is: the probable frequency and probable magnitude of future loss. From a modeling perspective, I need at least two variables to model the risk for any given risk issue: a loss frequency variable and a loss magnitude variable. Hopefully, you are using a risk analysis methodology that deconstructs risk into these two variables…

The examples I am sharing in this blog series are an example of stochastic modeling. The use of random values as an input to a probability distribution ensures there is variation in the output; thus making it stochastic. The variable output allows for analysis through many different lenses; especially when there are additional (meaningful) attributes associated with any given risk issue (policy section, business unit, risk type, etc…).

Part 1 and 2 of this series will focus on “probable or expected [loss] frequency”. Frequency implies a number of occurrences over a given period of time. Loss events are discrete in nature; there are no “partial” loss events. So, when we see probable loss frequency values like 0.10 or 0.25 – and our time period is a year – we interpret that to mean that there is a 10% or 25% chance of a loss event in any given year. Another way of thinking about it is in terms of time; we expect a loss event once every ten years (0.10) or once every four years (0.25). Make sense?

You may want to download this Excel spreadsheet to reference for the rest of the post (it should work in Excel 2003, Excel 2007 and Excel 2010; I have not tested it on Office for Mac).

Make sure you view it in Excel and NOT Google Apps.

In a simulation, how would we randomly draw loss frequency values for a risk issue whose expected loss frequency is 0.10, or once every ten years? I will share two ways; the first of which is the remainder of this post.

For any simulation iteration, we would generate a random value between 0 and 1; and compare the result to the expected loss value

a.    The stated expected loss frequency is 0.10 (cell B1; tab “loss 1”)

b.    For purposes of demonstration, we will number some cells to reflect the number of iterations (A6:A1005; A6=1; A7=A6+1; drag A7 down to you get to 1000).

c.    In Excel, we would use the =RAND() function to generate the random values in cells B6:B1005.

d.    We would then compare the randomly generated value to the expected loss frequency value in cell B1; with this code in C6 dragged down to C1005:

=IF(B6<=$B$1,1,0)

i.    If the generated random value in cell B6 is equal to or less then 0.1000 (cell B1), then the number of loss events for that iteration is 1.
ii.    If the generated random value in B6 is greater then 0.1000, then the number of loss events for that iteration is 0

e.    Once you have values in all the cells, you can now look at how many iterations resulted in a loss and how many did not. Cell B2 counts the number of iterations you had a loss and cell B3 counts the number of iterations you did not have a simulated loss; their corresponding percentages are next to each other.

f.    The pie chart shows the percentage and count for each loss versus no loss.

g.    Press the F9 key; new random values will be generated. Every time you press F9 think of it as a new simulation with 1000 iterations. Press F9 lots of times and you will notice that in some simulations loss events occur greater then 10% of the time and in some simulations less then 10% of the time.

h.    What you are observing is the effect of randomness. Over a large number of iterations and/or simulations we would expect the loss frequency to converge to 10%.

i.    Another thing worth mentioning, is that output from the RAND() function is uniform in nature. Thus, there is equal probability of all values between 0 and 1 being drawn for any given iteration.

j.    Since our expected loss frequency is 0.1000 and the RAND() functions output is uniform in nature – we would expect to see 10% of our iterations result in loss; some were more and some were less.

There are some limitations with this method for simulating the loss frequency portion of our risk model:

1.    If the expected loss frequency is greater then 1 then using RAND() is not viable, because RAND() only generates values between 0 and 1.

2.    In iterations where you had a loss event; this method does not reflect the actual number of loss events for that iteration. In reality, there could be some iterations (or years) where you have more then one loss event.

Some of the first models I built used this approach for generating loss frequency values. There is usefulness regardless of its simplicity. However, there are other methods to simulate loss frequency that are more appropriate for modeling and overcome the limitations listed above. In the next post, we will use random values, a discreet probability distribution and the expected loss frequency value to randomly generate loss frequency values.

NOTES / DISCLAIMERS: I am intentionally over-simplifying these modeling examples for a few reasons:
1.    To demonstrate that IT Risk modeling is achievable; even to someone that is not an actuarial or modeling professional.
2.    To give a glimpse of the larger forest past some of the trees blocking our view within the information risk management profession.
3.    As with any model – simple or complex – there is diligence involved to ensure that the right probability distributions and calculations are being used; reflective of the data being modeled.
4.    In cases where assumptions are being made in a model; they would be documented.


The Risk Is Right.

May 21, 2009

Of particular interest to me right now is the appropriate risk amount to report on for any given issue. Being IT folks –warning broad stroke in progress – we prefer to want “precise” numbers that are not refutable by anyone and are supported by the over-whelming amount of electronic data that we have at our disposal. However, in reality – and in the information security risk management space – we lack such data. As such, there are information security industry super-stars that discourage the idea of taking a stand on quantifying information security risk; and from my perspective – devalue the subject matter expertise (some industry folks water this down to the word “opinion”) that security professionals offer to their organization. I guess I am getting off-topic – so let’s get back to topic: appropriate risk value to report on.

Quite a few risk quantification tools and methodologies tend to produce a risk value often referred to as the “expected loss amount”. Typically, this is the product of a loss event frequency value (LEF for those FAIR-minded folks) and the average monetary loss magnitude. For most information security risk practitioners and the organizations that employ them, the expected loss amount may be the most appropriate risk value to articulate to decision makers for any given risk issue. However, an additional minute or two of analysis of your loss distribution could result in you wanting to articulate a risk amount different then the expected loss amount.

Let’s take a look at some phrases and a few examples.

Loss event frequency: The probable frequency of which we expect a loss to incur.

Average loss magnitude: This is the average (or mean) loss value from a simulation or actual loss events. For example, if I perform 1001 simulations where a value between $1 and $10 dollars is drawn– I would add up the sum of all the simulations and divide it by 1000.

Expected loss magnitude: This is the product of the loss event frequency (most often the mean LEF) and the average loss magnitude. For example, if my loss event frequency is 0.1 per year (once every ten years), and my average loss magnitude is $10,000; my expected loss magnitude would be $1000.

Remember what the median is? The median is the number that is directly in the middle of a range of numbers. For example, if we perform 1001 simulations where a value between $1000 and $20,000 could be drawn and the number in the middle (value number 501, when ordered from lowest to highest) is $10,000 – that is our median.

At this point we have what could be the first comparison in determining which risk value to report. Generally speaking, if the mean and the median are close to each other, then the data set – or loss magnitude values may not be too skewed. If the mean is a lot higher then the median, then this could be the result of large loss magnitude values that are having a significant impact on the mean – somewhat “inflating” the average loss magnitude. The same concept applies is the mean is a lot lower then the median.

In some cases, using the mean loss magnitude to calculate the expected loss magnitude is appropriate. In other cases, the median may be more appropriate because the values influencing the mean are so far out in the distribution – or tail – that it would be inappropriate to use the average loss magnitude.

Now let’s look at another example. We have a risk scenario where the average loss value (per event) is $73,400, and you expect on average, 4 loss events per year. The annual expected loss ($73,400 x 4) is $293,600. However, we are dealing with probabilities and distributions and in reality there could be one year where we only have one loss event related to this specific issue and some years where we might have 10 loss events. How do we deal with this?

I performed a small experiment to help me better understand this.
From a previous risk issue, I derived the mean and standard deviations from the simulated loss event frequency (LEF) values and loss magnitudes (LM) values. In Excel, I wrote a small VBA-macro that allows me to define some simulation parameters and reference both the LEF and LM mean and standard deviation values. For each simulation iteration, the macro generates an LEF value based off a distribution that leverages the LEF mean and standard deviation. Then for each LEF value ( I round to the nearest integer), the macro then generates a loss magnitude value for each loss event and then sums those loss magnitude values. For example, if my LEF is two, then my utility randomly generated two loss values, using a distribution that leverages the LM mean and standard deviation; then sums those two values. The simulation continues until the desired number of iterations is complete. For my small experiment, I performed a simulation consisting of 3001 iterations. You can see the LEF and LM means and standard deviations in the image below.

risk_right_1_090521

Now that we have simulated loss values, we want to visually represent them. I want to represent the values two ways.

risk_right_2_090521

This is a small scatter plot diagram with a smoothed line. In Excel we create loss magnitude bins and count the number of times each iteration’s loss magnitude sum fell into these bins. As you can see the loss magnitude values look normally distributed.

risk_right_3_090521

In this chart, I want to show the percentage of loss magnitude values in relation to the loss amounts themselves. So in this chart, my simulated loss is greater then $14,924; 99.999% of the time. However, there is roughly a 10% chance that the risk could be greater then $404,924.

So what does all of this mean? What it means is that even though our expected loss value was $293,600* – the simulation resulted in the values below:

risk_right_4_090521

The lowest simulated loss magnitude was: $14,924.
The largest simulated loss magnitude was: $620,000.
The mean (average) loss magnitude was: $308,636.
The median of the loss magnitude value was: $309,000.
There is a 20% chance (80th percentile or 1-in-5), that the loss amount could be: $380,000.
There is a 5% chance (95th percentile or 1-in-20), that the loss amount could be: $441,900.

Note: The values above would change from simulation to simulation – but not significantly assuming the input parameters (LEF and LM mean and standard deviation values) remain constant.

Note: It is important to note that the term “tail risk” is usually associated with values at the 97.5th percentile or greater, or less then 2.5% of the time. While the numbers at the 1-in-20 and various tail risk points are tempting to use: please keep in mind that these are low probability / high magnitude loss amounts. Grandstanding on these values just for the shock factor – is the equivalent of crying wolf and undermines the value we can provide to our decision makers.

Now, our decision maker is faced with a harder decision. Do I assume or mitigate the risk associated with an expected loss amount of $308,636 or does this 1-in-5 loss magnitude value of $380,000 stand out to me? While it may seem like we are dealing with a small difference between the mean and the 1-in-5 values – risk tolerance, risk thresholds, and risk management strategies vary between decision makers and organizations.

Here is the take away: as you start going down the risk quantification road keep the following in mind:

1.    There is NO absolute 100% guaranteed predictable loss value – especially from a simulated loss distribution; but you have to report something. Thus choose a tool that lets you see the points from the distribution – not just a single value.

2.    Be mindful of how you articulate risk values. A consistent theme I hear and read about on a regular basis is that risk implies uncertainty – always. You need to underscore this when articulating risk to leadership.

3.    Have the discussion with your management / decision makers as to what loss value they would prefer to see. Their feedback may highly influence the value you report.

4.    Use the right value for the right purpose. For single risk issues, expected loss amounts may be appropriate. For a loss distribution (model) that represents dozens or even hundred of risks – the 1-in-5, 1-in-10, 1-in-20 and maybe some tail risk values may be the best values to react to or budget for.

Have a great Memorial Day weekend!

* In the interest of transparency, the observant reader will notice that my mean LEF is actually 4.17. For simulation purposes, I have rounded generated loss values to the nearest integer. In a given year, you can’t have 4.17 loss events. You would either have 4 or you would have 5. However, if you take the product of 4.17 and $73,400; $306,078 – you will notice that it is within a few thousand dollars of the simulation’s mean and median values.


Stuart King – Information Security Annoyances – Response 2

March 21, 2009

In my last post, I provided some thoughts on one of Stuart King’s Top 5 Information Security Annoyances; specifically, security awareness programs. In this post, I want to touch on Stuart’s comments regarding Risk Modeling. Here are Stuart’s thoughts:

“Many “experts” preach the importance of working through risk models. It’s a load of tosh. No matter which way you try to do it, you’ll always come out with the answer you first thought of.  You might as well use a crystal ball and read tarot cards. Nobody needs to work through a complex risk model to understand that if a retail website suffers a denial of service that it’ll have some financial consequences, or  that if the internet connection is lost that there wont be  access to the..er..Internet. I’ve got better, more constructive and practical ways to spend my day than conspiring over risk models. Much more relevant is threat modelling – understand your systems and know the business so that you can make relevant risk-based decisions.”

In November of 2008, I posted a rebuttal regarding Stuart’s dislike for my approach to risk assessments. I am still convinced that Stuart’s approach is more a vulnerability assessment rather then a risk assessment – the latter of which focuses more on frequency of loss and impact while also accounting for how “vulnerable” something is. So, it is no wonder that Stuart is down on risk modeling; if the risk assessment foundation he is using is cracked, then any risk model built on top of it is probably flawed.

So what is a risk model? It means different things to different people. But here is a general description that I like from the Inter-American Development Bank : “A mathematical, graphical or verbal description of risk for a particular environment and set of activities within that environment. Useful in Risk Assessment for consistency, training and documentation of the assessment.”

Now, modeling activities themselves can be both complex and simple. I *think* that the complexity that Stuart may be referring to is more in the context of the modeling activity versus the output, or the model itself. However, information professionals can still model risk without being have degrees in statistics, being an actuarial, or attending months of technical training.  Let me explain…

Effective does not have to be expensive or complex.

simple_model

First, I beg your pardon for the image above – as it truly does push the limits of my standards for public-facing decency – but there is a real story behind this picture (essentially a risk model). My first real IT job outside the Marine Corps was for a holding company in Washington, DC of which there were five subsidiaries (two lobbying firms, two public relations firms, and a crisis management firm). The year was 1998 and our company had just hired its first CIO, who to this day is still one of a handful of folks I consider a close friend. The picture above is a representation of what our new CIO drew to the CFO of the holding company to justify purchasing a new firewall – little explanation needed. It worked. A few weeks after he presented the risk model – we were installing a Raptor firewall and were no longer relying on a Cisco router with NAT capabilities to protect our edge.

risktical_pi_chart

The image above is referred to as a Probability / Impact (P-I) Chart. It is often generically referred to as a heat map. For every risk issue and subsequent risk assessment, there is an associated loss event frequency and expected impact – that can be plotted within a P-I chart. These are not very complex to create and are very flexible. Combine some creativity with flexibility and you can visually represent risk issues in appealing ways. The ranges can be modified to be more reflective of thresholds for your particular company. It is definitely not as crude as the CIO/Firewall image above, and it allows us to plot numerous risk points. Finally, these charts are great tools for helping to prioritize which risks to mitigate first.

annloss_curve1

Above is an annualized “expected loss” curve that was produced by a risk tool I work with on a regular basis. Most tools of this nature leverage Monte-Carlo or Latin Hypercube simulation capabilities. It took only a few minutes to plug in the variables that the simulation model needs to perform the simulation (I use the FAIR methodology). For this particular risk issue, I asked the tool to perform 1000 Monte Carlo simulation iterations. It took about 8 seconds to perform. The output of the simulation gives me the expected loss event frequency and expected loss amount – both if which could be modeled like above. However, the curve above is the annualized risk curve. The annualized risk value is achieved by multiplying the expected loss event frequency by the expected loss amount. Do this a 1000 times and you get the curve above. Again, the tool I use does this all for me – in about 8 seconds. What this curve tells me is that about 90% of the simulations resulted in expected loss amounts of less then $80,000.

In closing, please understand that there are very simple and affordable risk assessment and risk model tools available to you. Most IT security risks do not require complex risk models or tools that can take hours, days, months, or even years to build – let alone simulate. Tremendous progress has been made in the last 10-15 years that gives security practitioners like ourselves capabilities that scientists and engineers only dreamed of as recent as 20 years ago.

Let’s stop hobbling ourselves and instead empower ourselves to make as big of a positive impact as possible to our employers as well as our profession. Be creative, educate yourself, be part of the solution – not part of the problem, periodically reassess your skills. This goes for Computer Weekly and the bloggers / writers they hire as well.


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